why choose the kjv

[southernfinery]

It is impossible to translate any language into another word for word because the difference in sentence structure would make it unintelligible. However the King James Version translators sought to preserve the structure of the Greek and Hebrew whenever they could. Also, they strove to maintain unity in rendering the words from Greek and Hebrew into English as closely as they could.For this reason, it is possible to do word studies with the King James Version to find out the definition of a word as used in its context. It is not possible to do this with many of the modern versions, which used a technique called dynamic equivalence in their translations. Dynamic equivalence means that the thoughts were translated according to what the translator thought the original writer was really saying.For example, consider the passage from Romans 6-8. In the King James Version the word flesh in this passage is taken from a simple Greek word, sarx. This word is used 143 times, and is always translated in the King James Version as flesh. It is possible to find out what Paul meant by flesh in this passage by examining the use of the word every other time it appears in our King James Version English Bible. When we do this we find out that flesh means flesh. Flesh is the body. You can see, feel, and touch the flesh.Now consider the New International Version. In the passage of Romans 6-8, every time the Greek word sarx appeared in the Greek text the translators translated it sinful nature, even though they translated that same Greek word sarx as flesh in other parts of the Bible. They arbitrarily decided to translate according to their doctrine, not according to what the Greek text says. Sinful nature is a nebulous concept that you cannot see, feel, and touch. To use that term in the place of “flesh†in this passage causes major confusion and inaccuracy of words as well as thoughts.

[maggie12544 (deleted)]

`I was reading here about translations of the Bible and what this girl says does not make sense to me when she quotes Romans 6:8 This passage does not make any refference to flesh. I am reading a translations from Hebrew, Greek and Arameic, This is the Complete Jewish Bible by David H. Stern. It is really day and night from other translations, since he explains the meaning of a word that has no translations in a complete phrase. Of couse, word by word is not possible to translate anything to another language. I speack English (of course) Greek, French, Italian and Spanish, and know this very well.
Romans 6:8 Now since we died in the Messiah, we trust that we will also live with him (Complete Jewish Bible)
Romans 6:8 Now if we died with Christ, we believe that we will also live with him. (NIB) The difference bitween the two translations is not to big, but I believe that the CJB is more clear and to the point. I might be wrong...